Originally Posted by
BlakNWyte
bnws week-long slumber is over
I am puzzled. A 'birth' of intention violates our logical understanding of a timeless realm. A change in the state of mind must have temporal time-- if i am correctly assuming that change, by definition, implies some different state of mind prior-- i feel it follows inescapably. Could you elaborate?
Ok, now that i am pleasantly drunk i may phrase it all concisely and to the point.
First of all, define temporal time. I think i know what you are talking about, but i want to make sure.
If you mean the part of space-time which was created after expansion of singularity, than you are wrong. Answer me this: do you think god had any activity within his mind prior to creation/expansion of the universe?
If you answer yes, than you would be stepping on your own trap, since "temporal time" as you call it didn't exist then, and any cognitive process (according to you) requires it.
If you answer that no such processes took place and there was only 1 big infinite intention, then you are essentially reducing god to being able to operate only within space-time. You are reducing him to that same singularity, which
was indefinitely...and then....
POOF! Expansion; a process, seemingly causeless.
Moreover, what happened after this "temporal time" was created? Did god's mind unfreeze? Did principle of causality start to apply to god and all his actions (eg creation of mankind, slaying of Egyptian babies, etc) or were all those eternal intentions too, predestined by god's nature *cough*programming*cough* to be executed at certain moments?
The solution you provide drags more problems with it, but solves none.
Hmm, this statement confuses me. But proceed, as it seems i do agree with the premise.
Physical as in that which is part of space-time. At least that's what i think you keep talking about when you mention "temporal time".